When I was first shown the Quantity Theory of Money in 1964 i.e. Irving Fisher's 1911 version: M.V=P.Y.
I asked why would a company, willy-nilly raise its prices because there is more money in the economy, to risk losing market share? What was the mechanism transforming money volume into higher corporate price-setting?
Between 1964 through to 1969 I asked lecturers and professors at the Faculty of Economics at Cambridge and Department of Economics at Stanford the same question.
None could explain the mechanism but they insisted that the QTM was the "explanation"
In 1975 I happened to watch an interview of Milton Friedman when he was asked the same question and under the repetition of the question, to which he had no answer, he became somewhat irritated and blurted out, " From the data, it happens in the long run!" which, of course is not a mechanism.
Having completed agriculture before economics we were required to plan operational farms using operations research algorithms where it was obvious that growth comes from price-setting and associated changes in productivity which created price-setters who could increase their market share, irrespective of market money volumes, levered by the income-price elasticity of demand.
Where the productivity changes also improved product quality the effect was even more dramatic.
Since this was self-evident to undergraduate agronomists in 1964/65 why did it take academic economists so long to come to grips with this?